On the concept of inverse proportional function It is said in the book that a function in the form of y = K / X (x ≠ 0, y ≠ 0, K ≠ 0) is called an inverse proportion function But, why do I do a question in the exam, say: y = k-1 / x, when k-1 why value, y = 0? Then this is not an inverse proportion function... Who can tell me what's going on... T t =Why do you go to k-1? My question is: concept (x ≠ 0, y ≠ 0, K ≠ 0), but the question is (forget it, just K, lest you misunderstand it.) why is k worth y = 0

On the concept of inverse proportional function It is said in the book that a function in the form of y = K / X (x ≠ 0, y ≠ 0, K ≠ 0) is called an inverse proportion function But, why do I do a question in the exam, say: y = k-1 / x, when k-1 why value, y = 0? Then this is not an inverse proportion function... Who can tell me what's going on... T t =Why do you go to k-1? My question is: concept (x ≠ 0, y ≠ 0, K ≠ 0), but the question is (forget it, just K, lest you misunderstand it.) why is k worth y = 0

If y = K / X is the inverse proportional function K ≠ 0, but k-1 can be equal to 0, i.e. k = 1