It is said that "if y = f (x) is differentiable at point x, then when △ x → 0, the differential dy of the function at point x is infinitesimal of the same order of △ X." Is this statement correct? Why? The answer is incorrect. Please explain

For example, the derivative of F (x) in x = 0

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1. Let f (x) be differentiable, then when △ x → 0, △ y-dy is infinitesimal of higher order compared with X,
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