The following is a correct understanding of the expression f = ma of Newton's second law and its deformation formula () A. According to f = ma, the resultant force of an object is directly proportional to its mass and inversely proportional to its acceleration. B. according to M = FA, the mass of an object is directly proportional to its resultant force and inversely proportional to its acceleration. C. according to a = FM, the acceleration of an object is directly proportional to its force and inversely proportional to its mass From M = FA, the mass of an object can be obtained by measuring its acceleration and resultant force

The following is a correct understanding of the expression f = ma of Newton's second law and its deformation formula () A. According to f = ma, the resultant force of an object is directly proportional to its mass and inversely proportional to its acceleration. B. according to M = FA, the mass of an object is directly proportional to its resultant force and inversely proportional to its acceleration. C. according to a = FM, the acceleration of an object is directly proportional to its force and inversely proportional to its mass From M = FA, the mass of an object can be obtained by measuring its acceleration and resultant force

A. The resultant force of an object has nothing to do with its mass and acceleration. So a is wrong. B. the mass of an object has nothing to do with the resultant force and acceleration, and it is determined by its own properties. So B is wrong. C. according to Newton's second law a = FM, the acceleration of an object is related to

In the formula of Newton's second law, f = KMA, about the value of proportional constant K, the correct statement is: A. in any case, it is 1 B. It is determined by mass acceleration and force

B
When m is in kilogram and a is in meter per second, K is 1 in Si, then f is in Newton

Is the acceleration of an electron calculated by Newton's law f = ma, a = f / M?
I'm looking forward to your reply. I can't help but have so many

"Newton's law of mechanics is not applicable in microcosmic"
It depends on the problem you are involved in. If it is a simple one, it can also be used
For example, an electron in a uniform electric field is accelerating uniformly. A = Q * e / m
The reason why it is inapplicable is that microscopic particles run fast and involve Einstein's "mass energy equation"

The definition of base e of natural logarithm, why is it equal to 2.71828... Please prove

The value is 2.71828 , is defined as:
The limit of (1 + 1 / N) ^ n when n - > ∞
Note: x ^ y is the power of X to y

Why is the low number e of natural logarithm equal to 2.71828

The natural constant e is the limit of the function y = f (x) = (1 + 1 / x) ^ x when x tends to infinity

The degree x of the natural logarithm base e is equal to the base of each molecule in its expansion
As we all know, e = 1 / 0! + 1 / 1! + 1 / 2! + 1 / 3
Why e ^ x = x ^ 0 / 0! + x ^ 1 / 1! + x ^ 2 / 2! + x ^ 3 / 3

e^x=x^0/0!+X^1/1!+x^2/2!+x^3/3!.
This is the McLaughlin expansion of e ^ X. if you learn the derivative, Taylor formula and McLaughlin expansion, you will know that the above equation is the derivative expansion of e ^ x at x = 0, just as (x + 1) ^ 2 expands to x ^ 2 + 2x + 1

Find the base of natural logarithm e = 2.718 100 decimal places

e=2.71828 18284 59045 23536 02874 71352 66249 77572 47093 69995 95749 66967 62772 40766 30353 54759 45713 82178 52516 64274
Use the expansion "E = 1 + 1 / 1! + 1 / 2! + 1 / 3! +. + 1 / N! = ∑ 1 / N!" to calculate the natural logarithm base e, 100 decimal places, n = 73

Who can tell me how the function image of logarithm of different bases is distributed?
In the case of y-axis positive and negative half axis
For example: y = the logarithm of X with 1 / 2 as the base. Y = the logarithm of X with 1 / 5 as the base. Which of these two functions is closer to the y-axis in the positive half axis? Which one is closer to the y-axis in the negative half axis?

Yang Fan knows that when f (x) = ㏒ ax, a ∈ (0,1), f (x) is a decreasing function of over (1,0), infinitely close to y positive semiaxis, but does not intersect. When f (x) = ㏒ ax, a ∈ (1, + ∞), f (x) is an increasing function of over (1,0), infinitely close to y negative semiaxis, but does not intersect

The base transformation of logarithm, such as the logarithm with log AB as the base, can be changed into the operation form with log a as the base and log B as the base

It can be expressed as (LN C) / (LN AB), which is equal to (LN C) / (ln a + ln b)

a. B is a real number, a > b > e, e is the base of natural logarithm