Why is it that when n tends to infinity, the n-th sine divided by n-th one equals 1? Is the infinitesimal divided by the infinitesimal equal to one?

Why is it that when n tends to infinity, the n-th sine divided by n-th one equals 1? Is the infinitesimal divided by the infinitesimal equal to one?

Well, I can't do very rigorous reasoning, and even the Tongji version of calculus doesn't speak very thoroughly
If you are an engineering student, I advise you to remember this as a theorem
The other two theorems are the most commonly used in calculus

What is the infinitesimal power of a number

1. If the so-called infinitesimal is close to 0, the result is 1
2. If "infinitesimal" refers to "negative infinity", it is negative infinity power, that is the reciprocal of infinity power
1/(a^lim)
If a = 0 ≤ A1, the result is 0

LNX, when x tends to the positive direction of zero, what is the limit of LNX?

It's negative infinity