Does the limit of a function tend to infinity need to be equal when it tends to positive and negative infinity It seems that as long as the limit tends to be positive infinity, isn't it?

Does the limit of a function tend to infinity need to be equal when it tends to positive and negative infinity It seems that as long as the limit tends to be positive infinity, isn't it?

It's necessary. But what we do now is that the limits are equal when they tend to positive and negative infinity. Some of them are not equal. Just like some piecewise functions, the limits when they tend to positive and negative infinity are not equal. Consider the piecewise function f (x) = e ^ x (x ≤ 0); f (x) = 1 + 1 / X (x > 0). For f (x) = e ^ x (x ≤ 0), when they tend to negative nil

Lim when x tends to positive and negative infinity: does the limit of e ^ x + SiNx / e ^ X - cosx exist

It doesn't exist
The proof of x-positive infinity 1L = 1
X-negative infinite e ^ x = 0
=-TaNx unbounded

Solve LIM (X & sup2; + ax + b) / (1-x) = 2, X tends to 1, and find the value of a and B

lim（x²+ax+b）/（1-x）=2
X tends to 1 1-x tends to 0
X & sup2; + ax + B tends to 0
1+a+b=0
lim(2x+a)/(-1)=2
2+a=-2
a=-4
b=3